[Corpora-List] "normalizing" frequencies for different-sized corpora

Jenny Eagleton jenny at asian-emphasis.com
Mon Sep 12 11:13:01 CEST 2005

Thanks for the quick response from everybody, I
have got the idea now.

----- Original Message -----
SUBJECT: Re: [Corpora-List] "normalizing"
frequencies for
different-sized corpora
FROM: eric at comp.leeds.ac.uk
TO: jenny at asian-emphasis.com
DATE: 12-09-2005 16:59

I may be missing something, but I think the way to
find a
figure is simply:
( (freq of word) / (no of words in text) ) * 1000

eg (200/4000) * 1000 = 50

or (2646/55166) * 1000 = 48 (to nearest whole

- of course it's up to you whether to round to
nearest whole
or give the answer to 2 decimal palces (47.96)
or some other
of accuracy; but since generally a text is only a
sample or
approximation of the language you are studying, it
is sensible not to
claim too much accuracy/significance.

eric atwell
On Mon, 12 Sep 2005, Jenny Eagleton wrote:

> Hello Corpora and Statistics Experts,


> This is a very simple question for all the

> corpora/statistics experts

> out there, but this novice is not really

> mathematically inclined. I

> understand Biber's principle of "normalization,

> however I am not sure

> about how to calculate it. I want frequency


> normalized per

> 1,000 words of text. I can see how to do it if


> figures are even,

> i.e. if I have a corpus of 4,000 words and a

> frequency of 200, 

> I would have a normalized figure of 50.


> But for mixed numbers, how would I calculate the

> following: For

> example if I have 2,646 instances of a certain

> kind of noun in a

> corpus of 55,166 how would I calculate the

> normalized figure per

> 1,000 words?


> Regards,


> Jenny

> Research Assistant

> Dept. of English & Communication

> City University of Hong Kong




Eric Atwell, Senior Lecturer, Language research
group, School of
Faculty of Engineering, University of Leeds, LEEDS
LS2 9JT, England
TEL: +44-113-2335430 FAX: +44-113-2335468

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